Wine at Passover? At Communion?

The debate over this rages on.

Was first-century wine really alcoholic?  

Was it only 3-5%?

Did Jesus at Cana really turn water into that much wine, as we know it today?  

Modern-day views opposing the use of alcohol tend to get mixed up in the uncertain history of the usage of wine and alcohol in the first century.
 
Recently I considered again an argument that in the Upper Room, there would have been no leaven at all, according to God's command, and thus no fermented wine, either.  Fermented wine is basically the product of leavening from yeast, just like bread.  This would mean that the church shouldn't be using wine for Communion today, if Jesus didn't.  Here are my thoughts:

 
1. The OT doesn’t apply to wine the requirement to remove leaven.
The speed of Israel leaving Egypt at Passover is the best example.  Exodus 12:34 refers only to bread, not wine.  So when God establishes the feast of unleavened bread (the name is significant), He says 3 times don’t have leaven in your bread, and only once says, “No leaven at all,” without mentioning bread (Ex. 13:3-8).  God wanted Israel to replicate the Passover experience of having to eat bread unleavened each year.  They wouldn’t have had any wine, as slaves, probably.  

Exodus 12:15 is the most specific instruction on this I found, and refers to eating bread, or eating, only.  There is a whole separate group of words for drinking, and terms for fermented and unfermented wine, and none of them are used for this feast, or Passover, anywhere.  It applied to bread because that’s all they had to eat on the way out of Egypt.  It makes sense to apply this to any food in later celebrations, but applying it to wine isn’t warranted by the text, or by common parlance (we don’t speak of wine being leavened).  The point isn’t to avoid consuming any food product with yeast, leavened or fermented, but to remove leaven and use none in your baking/eating of food for 7 days.

 

2. Jews from Exodus to Jesus didn’t consider wine to be leavened, or not kosher, and they still don’t.
https://www.chabad.org/holidays/passover/pesach_cdo/aid/508672/jewish/Why-is-it-permitted-to-drink-wine-on-Passover-when-it-is-fermented-with-yeast.htm

3. I could not find anywhere in the Pentateuch (only a quick search!) a requirement that wine be offered as a sacrifice at Passover, so I was wrong about that this morning.  That there is a call for a drink offering at most other feasts may be a point in your favor.  The use of it at Seders appears to be a later tradition that Jesus used to establish Communion, just as He attended the feast of Hanukkah, an extra-biblical tradition, to teach the people.  Asserting that a practice is a tradition, and thus unwarranted, is a false inference.

 
4. The NT church used fermented wine in communion – 1 Cor. 11:21.
This refutes the argument that we only use the elements we do because of tradition.  Why did the NT church change to wine in Paul’s day (probably at his direction – he was in Corinth establishing the church a long time – Acts 18:11), if Jesus didn’t use it?
 
I see this and Ex 12:15 as the strongest arguments against this assertion.  I don’t think the scientific fact that the fermentation of wine and the leavening of bread are an extremely similar process, should trump the above.